PSC Notes

Industrial Transition in India

by

 

  • The process of industrial transition divided into: industrial growth during the 19th century and industrial progress during the 20th century
  • Industrial growth during the 19th century
    • Decline of indigenous industries and the rise of large scale modern industries
    • 1850-55: first cotton mill, first jute mill and the first coal mine established. Railway also introduced.
    • Despite some industrialisation, India was becoming an agricultural colony
    • The thrust to industrialisation came from the British because
      • They had capital
      • They had experience in setting up industries in Britain
      • They had state support
    • British industrialists were interested in making profits rather than economic growth of India
    • Parsis, Jews and Americans were also setting industries
    • No Indian industrialists because
      • Neither the merchants nor the craftsmen took the lead in setting industries
      • While the craftsmen didn’t possess capital, the merchants were happy with trading and money lending activity which was also growing at that time.
    • However, some Parsis, Gujaratis, Marwaris, Jains and Chettiars joined the ranks of industrialists
  • Industrial Growth in the first half of the 20th century
    • Imp events that stimulated industrial growth
      • 1905: Swadeshi Movement
      • First WW
      • Second WW
    • Great stimulus was given to the production of iron and steel, cotton and woollen textiles, leather products, jute.
    • Tariff protection was given to Indian industries between 1924 and 1939. This led to growth and Indian industrialists were able to capture the market and eliminate foreign completion altogether in important fields
    • The increase in industrial output between 1939 and 1945 was about 20 percent
    • After the WW I, the share of the foreign enterprises in India’s major industries began to decline.
  • Causes for the slow growth of private enterprise in India’s industrialisation
    • Inadequacy of entrepreneurial ability
      • Indian industrialists were short-sighted and cared very little for replacement and renovation of machinery
      • Nepotism dictated choice of personnel
      • High profits by high prices rather than high profits by low margins and larger sales
    • Problem of capital and private enterprise
      • Scarce capital
      • Few avenues for the investment of surplus
      • No government loans
      • Absence of financial institutions
      • Banking was not highly developed and was more concerned with commerce rather than industry
    • Private enterprises and the role of government
      • Lack of support from the government
      • Discriminatory tariff policy: one way free-trade
      • Restrictions transfer of capital equipments and machinery from Britain
      • Almost all machinery was imported
    • Despite these difficulties, the Indian indigenous business communities continued to grow, albeit at a slow pace.

Forms and Consequences of Colonial Exploitation

  • Main forms of colonial exploitation
    • Exploitation through trade policies
    • Exploitation through export of British Capital to India
    • Exploitation through finance capital via the Managing agency system
    • Exploitation through the payments for the costs of the British administration
  • Exploitation through trade policies
    • Exp of cultivators to boost indigo export: forced
    • Exp of artisans by compulsory procurement by the Company at low prices: gomastas were the agents of the Company who used to do this
    • Exp through manipulation of export and import duties:
      • Imports of Indian printed cotton fabrics in England were banned
      • Heavy import duties on Indian manufactures and very nominal duties on British manufactures.
      • Discriminating protection was given (to industries that had to face competition from some country other than Britain). This was whittled down, however, by the clause of Imperial Preference under which imports from GB and exports to GB should enjoy the MFN status.
    • Exploitation through export of British Capital to India
      • There were three purposes of these investment (in transport and communication)
        • To build better access systems for exploited India’s natural resources
        • To provide a quick means of communication for maintaining law and order
        • To provide for quicker disbursal of British manufactures throughout the country and that raw materials could be easily procured
      • Fields of FDI
        • Economic overhead and infrastructure like railways, shippings, port, roads, communication
        • For promoting mining of resources
        • Commercial agriculture
        • Investment in consumer goods industries
        • Investments made in machine building, engineering industries and chemicals
      • Forms of investment
        • Direct private foreign investment
        • Sterling loans given to the British Government in India
      • Estimates show that foreign capital increased from 365 mn sterling in 1911 to 1000 mn sterling in 1933.
      • British multinationals were the chief instruments of exploitation and it were they who drained out the wealth of India.
      • These investments show that
        • British were interested in creating economic infrastructure to aid exploitation and resource drain
        • They invested in consumer goods and not in basic and heavy industries to prevent the development of Indian industries
        • Ownership and management of these companies lay in British hands
      • Exploitation through finance capital via the Managing agency system
        • Managing agency system: The British merchants who had earlier set up firms acted as pioneers and promoters in several industries like jute, tea and coal. These persons were called managing agents
        • It may be described as partnerships of companies formed by a group of individuals with strong financial resources and business experience
        • Functions of managing agents
          • To float new concerns
          • Arrange for finance
          • Act as agents for purchase of raw materials
          • Act as agents to market the produce
          • Manage the affairs of the business
        • They were important because they supplied finance to India when it was starved of capital
        • In due course, they started dictating the terms of the industry and business and became exploitative and inefficient
        • They demanded high percentage of profits. When refused they threatened to withdraw their finance
      • Exploitation through payments for the costs of British administration
        • British officers occupied high positions and were paid fabulous remunerations.
        • These expenditures were paid by India
        • They transferred their savings to Britain
        • India had to pay interest on Sterling Loans
        • India has to pay for the war expedition of the Company and later the Crown

Consequences of the exploitation

  • India remained primarily an agricultural economy
  • Handcrafts and industries were ruined
  • Trade disadvantage developed due to the policy of the British
  • Economic infrastructure was developed only to meet the colonial interests
  • Drain of Wealth
  • The net result of the British policies was poverty and stagnation of the Indian economy

Parliamentary Form of Government

by

Parliamentary form of Government is the system of government in which there exists an intimate and harmonious relationship between the executive and the legislative departments, and the stability and efficacy of the executive department depend on the legislature.Its a system of government in which the power to make and execute laws is held by a parliament.

Although the parliamentary government is broadly defined in the above way, in such a system the supremacy of the legislature has now been replaced by the supremacy of the Cabinet. Hence, such form of government is also called Cabinet Government.

In a Parliamentary form of government, the head of the state is usually a different person than the head of the government. A Monarch or a President is usually the head of the state. However, he or she is the head of state, but not the head of government. The functions of the head of the state is chiefly formal or ceremonial. The council of ministers or the cabinet exercises the real executive powers and authority to run the Government. In many countries, the Prime Minister is the the head of the council of ministers.

The Parliamentary or the Cabinet system originated in England. This form of government exists in countries like Britain, India and Canada. This Parliamentary form of government is also called Responsible government.

Features

 

The features of Parliamentary form of Government has been discussed below:

 

  1. Existence of a Titular or Constitutional Ruler: The first characteristic feature of the parliamentary system is the existence of a Titular of Constitutional Ruler. Legally the administration of all the affairs of the state is conducted by the head of the state. In reality, however, the administration is carried by the Council of Ministers. The Monarch or the President, as the case may be, is the head of the state, but not the head of the government.

 

  1. Absence of Separation of Powers: In the parliamentary system the principle of separation of powers is not adopted. Here the three departments of government work in close, intimate contact, sharing some of the powers and functions of one another.

 

  1. Main Role of the Lower House in Ministry-formation: In the parliamentary government the lower house of the legislature, i.e., the popular chamber plays a vital role in the formation of the ministry. The leader of the party or alliance which wins the majority in this house is appointed the Prime Minister or Chancellor. The constitutional ruler appoints the other members of the ministry on his advice.

 

  1. Responsibility to the Legislature: In such a system the Cabinet or Ministry has to remain responsible to the legislature for all its activities and policies. In countries having bi-cameral legislatures, the Cabinet remains responsible to the lower house composed of the people’s representatives.

 

  1. Collective Responsibility: The ministerial responsibility to the legislature may again be of two kinds:

 

Individual responsibility, andCollective responsibility.

Individual responsibility means that the minister in charge of a department must be answerable for the activities of his department. But when the ministers remain jointly or collectively responsible to the legislature for the policies and activities of the government, it is called ‘collective responsibility’. Since no individual minister can unilaterally perform any business of government without the consent of the Cabinet, the entire Ministry or Cabinet has to remain accountable for the errors of the minister concerned.

 

  1. Intimate relationship between the Legislature and the Executive: In the parliamentary system an intimate relationship exists between the executive and the legislative departments. So they can easily control each other. The leaders of the majority party or alliance in the legislature become the members of the Cabinet or Ministry. Naturally, the ministers can easily extend their influence on the legislature. Consequently, the programs and policies of the Cabinet are backed by a majority inside the legislature.

 

  1. Leadership of the Prime Minister: The leadership of the Prime Minister is another major feature of the parliamentary system. The leader of the majority party in the legislature becomes the Prime Minister. Though, in theory, he is ‘primus inter pares’, i.e. ‘first among equals’, in reality, he possesses much greater power and status than the other ministers. As the undisputed leader of the majority party or alliance in the legislature he plays the most vital role in the determination and execution of government policies. Indeed, the success of parliamentary democracy depends, to a great extent, on the personality, efficiency and charisma of the Prime Minister.

 

  1. Existence of a Strong Opposition: The existence of one or more strong and well-organized opposition party or parties is the hall-mark of the parliamentary system. By criticizing the errors of the government, the opposition can compel it to adopt welfare measures and prevent it from becoming despotic. Judged from this angle, the opposition can be called the life-force of parliamentary democracy.

 

  1. Cabinet Dictatorship: In the parliamentary system of government the cabinet has to perform manifold functions.

 

It is the Cabinet which:

 

formulates well-considered policies of the Government after reviewing both the national and international issues,takes necessary, arrangements for passing laws to implement the policies formulated by it,determines the matters to be included in the agenda of the central legislature,controls and directs the administrative departments so that laws, Government orders, etc. are to be implemented properly,co-ordinates the activities of different departments of the Government,prepares the draft budget in consultation with the Prime Minister and takes necessary initiative to get it passed in the legislature,formulates economic policies and takes necessary steps for implementing the same,advice’s the constitutional head to take necessary action during emergency or unforeseen situation, etc.In this way the Cabinet acts as ‘the keystone of the political arch’ or has become the ‘steering wheel of the ship of the state’. In fact, in the parliamentary system of government as the cabinet members are the leaders of the majoity party or alliance in the legislature. Some critics think that the Parliament is controlled by the Cabinet under the leadership of the Prime Minister giving rise to some sort of “Cabinet dictatorship”.

 

Advantages :

 

The Parliamentary form of Government offers a lot of: advantages. The close cooperation between the executive and the legislative organs leades to smooth functioning of government and avoids unnecessary confrontation between them. These two organs work as mutually complementary to each other.

 

The responsibility of the government ensures an open administration. The executive, conscious of its responsibility to remain responsible for all its actions and to answer the question of the legislature relating to administration to their satisfaction always tries to remain alert, because this influences its electoral prospects. The more the mistake the less the chance of popular support in the election.

 

The system is flexible. Flexibility is an asset in any system as it provides room for adjustment. The parliamentary form of government is highly adaptive to changing situation. For example in times of grave emergency the leadership can be changed without any hassles, to tackle the situations as it happened during II World War in England. Mr. Chamberlain made way for Mr. Winston Churchil to handle the war. Even the election can be deferred till normalcy is restored. Such flexibility in the system does not exist in Presidential form of government which is highly rigid.

 

Under this system it is easier to locate responsibility for the lapses in administration. There is a vast body of civil servants who constitute the permanent executive. In fact they help the political masters to formulate policies of administration and their implementation. But it is the political leadership or the cabinet who takes the responsibility for everything in administration. Therefore it is said that the bureaucracy thrives under the cloak of ministerial responsibility.

 

A great merit of the system, as painted by Lord Bryce, if its swiftness in decision making. The executive can take any decision and quickly implement that without any hindrance. Since the party in power enjoys majority support in the legislature it can act freely without the fear of being let down.

 

Disadvantages:

 

However no system is completely foolproof. Advantages and disadvantages are part of any system irrespective of its soundness. Under this system the liberty of the people are at a stake as the executive and legislative organs of the government work in close collaboration. This greatly affects the principle of separation of powers. In view of the legislative support and the formidable power at its disposal the cabinet virtually becomes dictatorial. It becomes whimsical in exercising its power without caring for liberty of the people.

 

Politicization of administration is another demerit of the system. Political consideration in policy formulation and implementation outweigh popular interest. In other words people’s interest suffers at the cost of political considerations. The leadership of the party by virtue of powers it enjoys mobilizes the administration to strengthen the party prospects in the election.

 

The same can be said of the opposition parties who oppose the party in power for political considerations. They hardly show interest in the activities of the government and offer constructive criticism.

 

Prof. Dicey points out another serious lacuna in the system. According to him the executive under a parliamentary system fails to take quick decision at the time of any crisis or war. The members of the cabinet always are not unanimous on all problems. The Prime Minister discusses with his colleagues in the cabinet and ultimately prevails over them to take unanimous decision. This is different from the Presidential system where he takes the decision himself and implements that.

 

This system is unsuitable in countries with more than two parties. Usually in a multi party system the electorate fail to support a particular party in the election as a result of that there is hardly any party which gets majority votes. This leads to instability, chaos and confusion in selecting a party or a leader to form the government. As we observe the large number of political parties in India have contributed to political instability. Countries like Great Britain do not demonstrate such state of affairs as dual party system is the true basis of parliamentary democracy.

 

A criticism leveled against the Parliamentary system is that the government is run by the novice, ‘without any administrative training, skill or background. They are elected from social field and therefore depend heavily on the civil servants for formulation and implementation of policies. The bureaucrats under the system assume greater authority and consolidate their own position to use their political masters as mere tools.

Our constitution provides for parliamentary form of government. We have borrowed the constitutional features of several democratic countries. But our parliamentary model is predominantly based on the British system. The Head of Government in our system, the Prime Minister, can hold office only so long as he commands the confidence  of  the  Lok  Sabha.  Confidence  of  the  House  is  reflected  in existence/continuance of majority support – whether it be of a single party or of a coalition of parties. This feature can, and does, cause instability in governance. In Presidential democracies, the Head of Government, the President is directly elected by the people and cannot be removed from office except in circumstances of high crimes  and  misdemeanour  established  through  impeachment  process.  Hence, Presidential democracies provide stable governance. In our parliamentary system, we have had changes of government through mid term elections or political realignments. Changes in government undoubtedly bring about disruptions in implementation of policies, development programmes and schemes.

 

 

Monetary Policies

by

Monetary policy is the process by which the monetary authority of a country controls the supply of money, often targeting an inflation rate or interest rate to ensure price stability and general trust in the currency.

Objectives of Monetary Policies are:-

  •  Accelerated growth of the economy
  • Balancing saving and investments
  • Exchange rate stabilization
  • Price stability
  • Employment generation

Monetary Policy could be expansionary or contractionary;  Expansionary policy would increase the total money supply in the economy while contractionary policy would decrease the money supply in the economy.

RBI issues the Bi-Monthly monetary policy statement. The tools available with RBI to achieve the targets of monetary policy are:-

  • Bank rates
  • Reserve Ratios
  • Open Market Operations
  • Intervention in forex market
  • Moral suasion

 

 

Repo Rate- Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (RBI in case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. In the event of inflation, central banks increase repo rate as this acts as a disincentive for banks to borrow from the central bank. This ultimately reduces the money supply in the economy and thus helps in arresting inflation.

Reverse Repo Rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from the commercial banks.An increase in the reverse repo rate will decrease the money supply and vice-versa, other things remaining constant. An increase in reverse repo rate means that commercial banks will get more incentives to park their funds with the RBI, thereby decreasing the supply of money in the market.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a specified minimum fraction of the total deposits of customers, which commercial banks have to hold as reserves either in cash or as deposits with the central bank. CRR is set according to the guidelines of the central bank of a country.The amount specified as the CRR is held in cash and cash equivalents, is stored in bank vaults or parked with the Reserve Bank of India. The aim here is to ensure that banks do not run out of cash to meet the payment demands of their depositors. CRR is a crucial monetary policy tool and is used for controlling money supply in an economy.

CRR specifications give greater control to the central bank over money supply. Commercial banks have to hold only some specified part of the total deposits as reserves. This is called fractional reserve banking.

Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) is the Indian government term for reserve requirement that the commercial banks in India require to maintain in the form of gold, government approved securities before providing credit to the customers.its the ratio of liquid assets to net demand and time liabilities.Apart from Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), banks have to maintain a stipulated proportion of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold and unencumbered securities. Treasury bills, dated securities issued under market borrowing programme and market stabilisation schemes (MSS), etc also form part of the SLR. Banks have to report to the RBI every alternate Friday their SLR maintenance, and pay penalties for failing to maintain SLR as mandated.

Ancient History Question Bank

by

1- The Rigvedic deity not found in Avesta is:

(a) Indra

(b) Varuna

(c) Agni

(d) Mitra

 

2- The concept of ‘Brahma’ started with:

(a) Brahmanas

(b) Aranyakas

(c) Upanishads

(d) Vedas

  1. Who wrote ‘Natya Shashtra’?

(a) Bhavbhuti

(b) Matang

(c) Bharat Muni

(d) Bharavi

  1. Most of Smritis have been written in verse. Which of the following has been written in prose ?

(a)   Narad Smriti                         (b)   Brihaspati Smriti

(c)   Yajnavalakya Smriti                 (d)   Vishnu Smriti

  1. Which Mandal of the Rigveda is dedicated to ‘Soma’ ?

(a)   Eighth                               (b)   Ninth

(c)   Tenth                                (d)   Sixth

  1. To whom Gautam Buddha gave his last sermon at Kushinagar ?

(a)   Subhadd                             (b)   Anand

(c)   Sariputra                            (d)   Upali

  1. Read the statements (A) and (B) and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A)  The sixth century B.C. was a period of great religious upheaval in all parts of the world.

(B)  The Vedic religion had become very complex.

Codes :

(a)   Both (A) and (B) are false.           (b)   Both (A) and (B) are true.

(c)   (A) is true, while (B) is false.         (d)   (A) is false, while (B) is true.

  1. The earliest known epigraphic evidence of Bhagvatism is :

(a)   Prayag Prashasti of Samudra Gupta   (b)   Nasik inscription of Gautami Balshri

(c)   Garuda column at Besnagar          (d)   Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva

 

  1. Buddhist text ‘Milindapanho’ throws light on which Indo-Greek ruler ?

(a)   Diodorus II                           (b)   Demetrius

(c)   Minender                            (d)   Strato I

  1. In which Vedic text the term ‘Varna’ is found referred for the first time ?

(a)   Rigveda                              (b)   Atharva veda

(c)   Sam veda                            (d)   Yajur veda

  1. There were different causes for the downfall of the Gupta empire. Which one was not the cause among the statements given below ?

(a)   Huna invasion

(b)   Feudal set-up of administration

(c)   Acceptance of Buddhism by the later Guptas

(d)   Arab invasion

  1. The first Christian missionary’ to come to India was :-

(a) St. Paul

(b) St. Thomas

(c) St. Augustine

(d) St. Francis

  1. Who was the author of the book ‘Natyashastra’*

(a) Bharatmuni

(b) Bhasa

(c) Vasumitra

(d) Nagarjuna

 

  1. “Saka Era” started from :-

(a)  78    A.D

(b)   320 A. D.

(c)   606   A.D.

(d    58 A.D.

  1. According to Milind Panho. who was the Buddhist monk to whom King Milind posed question?

(a) Anand (b) Ashvaghosh

(c) Nagasena (d) None of the above

  1. Who composed the Mandsaur Prasasti?

(a) Vasu                   (b)   Harisena

(c) Vats Bhatti                 (d    None

  1. ‘Yangana’ belongs to which Buddhist Pitaka?

(a) Sutla

(b) Vinaya

(c) Abhidhamma

(d) None of these

  1. At which of the following places Chandragupta Mauriya had received his higher education:-

(a) Takshila

(b) Vaishali

(c) Nalanda

(d) Vikramshila

  1. Which one of the following Gupta rulers is referred to as “Lichchhavi Dauhitra”?

(a) Chandragupta-I

(b) Chandragupta-II

(c) Skandgupta

(d) Samudragupta

  1. Which of the following inscriptions refers to the defeat of Hunas by Skandgupt?

(a) Gwalior Inscription

(b) Junagarh Inscription

(c) Mandsaur Inscription

(d) None of the above

  1. Kalibangan is in

(a)   Rajasthan     (b)   Punjab           (c)   Sind             (d)   Maharashtra

  1. Buddha attained Nirvana at

(a)   Taxila        (b)   Champa         (c)   Kausambi        (d)   Kushinagar

  1. Gupta Samvat started in

(a)   320 A.D.     (b)   319 A.D.        (c)   322 A.D.         (d)   321 A.D.

  1. Who among the following was also a poet and a musician who took delight in the title of ‘Kaviraja’ or king of poets ?

(a)   Chandra Gupta Maurya               (b)   Samudra Gupta

(c)   Skand Gupta                         (d)   None of these

  1. The founder of Sunga dynasty was

(a)   Agnimitra    (b)   Divakaramitra   (c)   Pushyamitra     (d)   Vasumitra

 

  1. Who were the originators of the Dravidian Style of architecture and sculpture in the South Indian peninsula ?

(a)   Cholas        (b)   Hoysalas        (c)   Pallavas         (d)   Pandyas

 

  1. The Italian traveller who left very praiseworthy account of the Vijayanagar Empire was

(a)   E. Barbosa    (b)   Manucci         (c)   Marco Polo      (d)   Nicolo Counti

 

  1. Gupta Empire declined in the fifth century A.D. as a consequence of

(a)   Chalukya invasions                  (b)   Greek invasions

(c)   Huna  invasions                      (d)   Pallava invasions

  1. Kanishka is associated with an era which is known as
  2. Saka-Shalivahan era
  3. Saka era
  4. Gupta era
  5. Vikram era
  6. In ancient India the name of Varahamihira was associated with
  7. Drama
  8. Astronomy
  9. Medicine
  10. Mathematics

 

31 Which was the oldest University ?

  1. Gandhara
  2. Kannauj
  3. Nalanda
  4. Vaishali
  5. Pre-Historic Paintings are present at-
  6. Son Valley
  7. Kashmir
  8. all the above
  9. Bhimbetka, Bhopal
  10. Ashtapradhan was a council of ministers –
  11. In the gupta administration
  12. In the chola administration
  13. In the vijaynagar administration
  14. In the Maratha administration
  15. Which one of the following was initially the most powerful city state of India in the 6th century B.C?
  16. Magadh
  17. Kamboj
  18. Kashi
  19. Gandhar
  20. Fourth buddhist council held in Kashmir under emperor:
  21. Ashoka
  22. Ajatshatru
  23. Kanishka
  24. Kala Ashok
  25. The wheel was an important discovery of :-
  26. palaeolithic age
  27. Neolithic age
  28. Mesolithic age
  29. chalcolithic age
  30. Mauryan officer responsible for the slaughter-house

 

  1. Durgyapal
  2. Dyutadhyaksha
  3. Sunadhyaksha
  4. Paliwal

 

  1. In Buddhism, what does Patiomokkha stands for?
  2. The rules of the sangha
  3. A description of Mahayana Buddhism
  4. The question of the king Menander
  5. A description of Hinayana Buddhism
  6. The vedas contain all the truth was interpreted by ?
  7. Swami Dayananda
  8. Raja Rammohan Roy
  9. Swami Vivekananda
  10. None
  11. Where is the famous Virupaksha Temple located
  12. Hampi
  13. Bhadrachalam
  14. Chidambaram
  15. Srikalahasti
  16. Which of the following works of Kalidasa gives information about the Andhras?
  17. Meghaduta
  18. Sakuntala
  19. Malavikagnimitra
  20. Kumarasambhava
  21. The important port of Indus Valley people is
  22. Lothal
  23. Mohenjadaro
  24. Harappa
  25. Kalibangan
  26. After attaining the enlightenment Gautam Buddha gave his first sermon in which language?
  27. Prakrit
  28. Sanskrit
  29. Pali
  30. Maithili
  31. In Sanskrit dramas, written during the Gupta period, women and Sudras spoke
  32. Sanskrit
  33. Sauraseni
  34. Prakrit
  35. Pali

 

 

  1. Consider the following statements-
  • The Ikshvaku rulers of southern India were antagonistic toward Buddhism.
  • The Pala rulers of eastern India were patrons of Budhism

which of the following is/are correct

  1. 2 only
  2. none
  3. both
  4. 1 only
  5. Which of the Vedas is the oldest?
  6. Sam Veda
  7. Yajur Veda
  8. Atharva Veda
  9. Rig Veda
  10. Arthasastra was written by
  11. Kalidasa
  12. Vishakadatta
  13. Kautilya
  14. Megasthanese
  15. The famous frog hymn in Rig Veda throws light to –
  16. Vedic Literature
  17. Vedic Rituals
  18. Vedic Custumes
  19. Vedic education
  20. The Nadistuti sukta hymn of the rig Veda mentions
  21. 15 rivers
  22. 20 rivers
  23. 21 rivers
  24. 12 rivers
  25. The Idol workship in India dates back to:
  26. The Mauryan Period
  27. The Gupta Period
  28. The Pre Aryan Period
  29. The Kushan Period

 

 

 

  1. The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in the
  2. Kenopanishad
  3. Mundakopanished
  4. Kathopanished
  5. Chhandogyopanishad
  6. Among the four dynasties listed below, which one minted coins made of lead ?
  7. Mauryas
  8. Satavahanas
  9. Western Kashatrapas
  10. Guptas
  11. The last great ruling dynasty of Magadha was
  12. Kanva
  13. Sunga
  14. Kusana
  15. Gupta
  16. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is
  17. Dharmakirti
  18. Chakravarti
  19. Dharmadeva
  20. Priyadasi
  21. Which Chinese traveler visits Bhimnal:
  22. Whensang
  23. Sangyun
  24. Fahyan
  25. Issing
  26. The great silk-route to the Indians was opened by –
  27. Harsha
  28. Ashoka
  29. Fa-Hien
  30. Kanishka
  31. According to Buddha, the cause of all human sorrow is trishna which means
  32. Worldly attachment
  33. Desire for worldly things
  34. Desire for material enjoyments and worldly things
  35. Hyperactivity of mind

 

 

  1. Bhumisparsha mudra – hand position of Sarnath belogs to which of the following ages-
  2. Mauryan
  3. Gupta
  4. Sunga
  5. Kushan
  6. Bhrami Script of Ashoka was deciphered for first time by-
  7. V A Smith
  8. James Princep
  9. S R Goel
  10. William Jones
  11. Which one of the following sites excavated recently shows all the three stages of harappan occupation (pre-harappan, harappan, post-harappan).
  12. Desalpur
  13. All of these
  14. Rojdi
  15. Surkotda
  16. The word Hindu as reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by
  17. the Romans
  18. the Greeks
  19. the Chinese
  20. the Arabs
  21. Which of the scripts depicted on Dharamraj Rath in Mahabalipuram?
  22. Malyalam script
  23. Granth Script
  24. Telgu Script
  25. Tamil Script
  26. Maximum number of verses in Rig Veda are devoted to-
  27. Indra
  28. Agni
  29. Vishnu
  30. Rudra
  31. Who was Nagarjuna?
  32. Saint of jainism
  33. Vedic Saint
  34. Greek emperor
  35. Buddhist Philosopher

 

  1. Which of the following religions does not believe in Judgement Day or Destruction of Universe
  2. Islam
  3. Budhism
  4. Budhism
  5. Jainism

 

  1. Hathigumpha inscription is attributed to which of the following emperors?
  2. Samudragupta
  3. Ashoka
  4. Chandragupta II
  5. Kharavela
  6. Rig Veda is
  7. A Collection of songs
  8. A Collection of hymns
  9. A Collection of spell
  10. None
  11. Buddha attained mahaparinirvana in the republic of:-
  12. Sakyas
  13. Mallas
  14. Palas
  15. Lichivis
  16. After Hazarat Mohammad Saheb, the religious teacher was called—
  17. Kazi
  18. Imam
  19. Maulvi
  20. Khalifa

70.The language of Sangam Literature was

  1. Pali
  2. Sanskrit
  3. Prakrit
  4. Tamil

71.The Great Hindu law giver was

  1. Kapila
  2. Kautilya
  3. Manu
  4. Vatsayana

 

  1. Mahoday is an old name of which city?
  2. Udaipur
  3. Allahabad
  4. Jaisalmer
  5. Kanauj
  6. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:(2011)
  7. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene,
  8. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
  5. The word ‘Sindhan’ used by the Indus people denoted –
  6. Cotton
  7. Mother Goddess
  8. Indus River
  9. cereals
  10. What does Korralai stand for Sangam social system
  11. Traders
  12. A marriage custom
  13. Goddess of victory
  14. Comunity of hunters

76 .Bull-Seal of Indus valley civilization was found at:

  1. Harappa
  2. Chanhudaro
  3. Lothal
  4. Mohenjodaro
  5. Which among the following places have given the earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian subcontinent?
  6. Pratapgarh
  7. Quetta
  8. Mehrgarh
  9. Kalat

 

 

  1. Kalsi rock inscriptions are related to
  2. Ashoka
  3. Bindusar
  4. Satvahana Kings
  5. Mugals
  6. Weapon never used by the Indus people
  7. stone
  8. none
  9. Sticks
  10. Sword

79.The system Governing villages through autonomous elected panchayats was evolved by:

  1. Mauryas
  2. Dravids
  3. Kushans
  4. Aryans
  5. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
  6. A state of bliss and rest
  7. The complete annihilation of self
  8. The extinction of the flame of desire
  9. A mental stage beyond all comprehension
  10. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by
  11. Mahayana Buddhism
  12. Hinayana Buddhism
  13. Jainism
  14. The Lokayata School
  15. Which of the following inscriptions mentioned the Sati practice for the first time
  16. Eran Inscription
  17. Sanchi Inscription
  18. Mandsaur Inscription
  19. Junagarh Inscription
  20. Buddhist Literature is written in which of the following language?
  21. Sanskrit
  22. Tamil
  23. Pali
  24. Prakrita

 

 

  1. The words Satyameva Jayata have been taken from the
  2. Mundaka Upanishad
  3. Tottreya Upanishad
  4. Kath Upanishad
  5. Ishovasya Upanishad
  6. Which of the followings were discused in”Kitabul Hind” by Al Beruni?
  7. Sculpture
  8. Astronomy
  9. Medicine
  10. All the above
  11. According to Buddha, the cause of all human sorrow is trishna which means
  12. Desire for material enjoyments and worldly things
  13. Desire for worldly things
  14. Worldly attachment
  15. Hyperactivity of mind
  16. ”The Wonder that was India” was written by
  17. James Prinsep
  18. L.Basham
  19. Arrian
  20. None
  21. The capital of Kalinga was
  22. Ujjain
  23. Suvarnagiri
  24. Taxila
  25. Toshali
  26. Which of the following is called as the Bible of Tamil Land
  27. Silppadikaran
  28. Tolkappiyam
  29. Kural
  30. Manimekalai

90.Gupta empire declined in the fifth century A. D. as a consequence of

  1. Greek invasion
  2. Pallava raids
  3. Chalukya raids
  4. Hun invasion

 

 

  1. The illustrious names of Aryabhatta and Varahamihir are associated with the age of the
  2. Guptas
  3. Mauryas
  4. Palas
  5. Kushanas
  6. “Tripitaka” Texts are related with which religion:
  7. Vedic Religion
  8. Shaivism
  9. Jainism
  10. Budhism
  11. Which of the following caves are famous for Trimurti
  12. Ellora
  13. Ajanta
  14. Elephanta
  15. None
  16. Mahajanpad situated on bank of river godawari was:
  17. Assaka
  18. Avanti
  19. Vatsa
  20. Kamboja
  21. First Murti-Pooja(idol worship) in India was done for:
  22. Vishnu
  23. Buddha
  24. Brahma
  25. Shiv
  26. In Buddhism, Bodhisattvas were
  27. statues of Buddha
  28. Chinese Buddist pilgrims
  29. persons who attained enlightenment
  30. Buddhist scholars
  31. Paintings inscribed on walls of Ajanta are related to
  32. Budhism
  33. Jainism
  34. Hinduism
  35. All the Above three

 

 

  1. There was a sharp class division at harappa and mohen-jodaro. this is clear from the?
  2. different types of dwellings excavated
  3. Indus seals excavated
  4. religious beliefs of the Harappans
  5. tools and implements used by the Harappans
  6. Which among the following kings was also known as Mamallan (great wrestler)?
  7. Narasimhavarman I
  8. Pulakesi II
  9. Mahendravarman I
  10. None of the above
  11. The term ‘yavanapriya’ mentioned in ancient sanskrit texts denoted?
  12. a fine variety of Indian muslin
  13. damsels sent to the Greek court for dance performance
  14. pepper
  15. ivory
  16. Irrigation tax in ancient India was known as-
  17. Hirnaya
  18. Bidakbhagam
  19. Udrang
  20. Uparnika
  21. The craft of the famous blue pottery in rajasthan originated from:
  22. Sindh
  23. Afganistan
  24. Kashmir
  25. Persia
  26. After large scale destruction and death in the battle field angaist Sikander, womens of which of the following state raised arms-
  27. Kath
  28. Massang
  29. Galusai
  30. Abhisar
  31. Who among the following presided over the Buddhist council held during the region of kanishka at Kashmir
  32. Nagarjun
  33. Parvaska
  34. Sudraka
  35. Vasumitra

 

105.Which one of the following travelers visited India during the Gupta period?

  1. Marco Polo
  2. Hiuen-Tsang
  3. Nicolo Conti
  4. Fa- Hien

106 .Emperor harsha’s South ward march was stopped on the Narmada river by:-

  1. Vikramaditya 1
  2. pulkeshin 2
  3. Vikramaditya 2
  4. pulkeshin 1
  5. Which among the following is the correct set of the plays written by Harshavardhan in Sanskrit?
  6. Malavikagnimitram,Vikramorvashiiyam and Abhijñanasakuntalam
  7. Nagananda, Priyadarshika and Ratnavali.
  8. Svapna Vasavadattam, Pancharatra and Pratijna Yaugandharayaanam
  9. None of these.
  10. Which of the following historic places are not related to the life of Gautam Budha-
  11. Sanchi
  12. Kushinagar
  13. Sarnath
  14. Bodhgaya
  15. Which of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion?
  16. Nanda
  17. Maurya
  18. Sunga
  19. Kanva
  20. During Sangam period Kon, Ko and Mannan is synonyms of:
  21. Army Chief
  22. Finance Minister
  23. King
  24. Prime Minister
  25. During Mourya period the Tax on Land was collected by officer:
  26. Shulka-adhyaksha
  27. Aka-Adhyaksha
  28. Agronomai
  29. Sita- Adhyaksha

 

 

  1. The ancient Chola kingdom existed in the delta of the river
  2. Tungabhadra
  3. Cauvery
  4. Krishna
  5. Godavari
  6. The main source of Knowledge about the in habitants of indus Valley Civilization is the discovery there of:
  7. Remains of towns
  8. Utensils, Jewellary, Weapons, tools
  9. Seals
  10. Scripts
  11. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by
  12. HinayanaBuddhism
  13. MahayanaBuddhism
  14. Jainism
  15. Lokayukta School
  16. The Harappan civilization was discovered in
  17. 1853-54
  18. 1891-92
  19. 1920-21
  20. 1864-65
  21. In the Gandhara sculptures the preaching mudra associated with the Buddha’s First Sermon at Sarnath is—
  22. Dhyana
  23. Abhaya
  24. Dharmachakra
  25. Bhumisparsa
  26. ___________is believed to mark the main site of Hastinapur, which was capital of Kauravas and Pandava The imperial gazetteer of India quotes about which of the following places?
  27. Meerut
  28. Ghaziabad
  29. Faridabad
  30. Delhi
  31. At which among the following sites the where first evidence of cultivation of cotton has been found?
  32. Hathonora
  33. Piklihal
  34. Ghaligai
  35. Nal

 

  1. Famous greek ambassador magasthenes visited court of:
  2. Chandragupta Maurya
  3. Ashoka
  4. Harsha Vardhan
  5. Hemu
  6. Which Inscription has “ASHOK” name:
  7. Thirteenth Inscription
  8. Maski, Small Inscription
  9. Bhabru Inscription
  10. Rummindei Inscription
  11. Zero was invented by—
  12. Bhaskara I
  13. Aryabhatta
  14. Varahamihira
  15. None
  16. The art style which combines indian and greek feature is called:
  17. Sikhar
  18. Verra
  19. Gandhar
  20. Nagar
  21. Which of the following four vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells
  22. Samaveda
  23. Yajurveda
  24. Rigveda
  25. Atharveda
  26. Who among the following is known for his work on medicine during the Gupta period
  27. sudraka
  28. shaunaka
  29. Saumimilla
  30. susrutha

125.Consider the following

  • God
  • soul
  • Rebirth
  • varna system

which of the above was not accepted by Buddhist religion choose answer from the given code

 

 

 

  1. 1,2,3&4
  2. 1,2&4
  3. 1,2&3
  4. 2,3&4
  5. Which one of the following usages was a post-Vedic development ?
  6. Brahmacharya-Grihasthashrama-Vanaprastha-Sanyasa
  7. Dharma-Artha-Kama-Moksha
  8. Brahmana-Kshatriya-Vaishya-Shudra
  9. Indra-Surya-Rudra-Marut
  10. Consider the following statements:-
  • The chinese pligrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council Held by Kanishka.
  • The Chinese pligrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.

which of the following given statements is/are correct:-

 

  1. 1 only
  2. both 1 and 2
  3. 2 only
  4. Niether 1 and 2

 

Famous Sayings

by
     

 

I wish for a peaceful term of India. I cannot forget that in the sky of India ,   Lord Canning
serene as it is, a small cloud may arise ………..threaten to burst & overwhelm.    
‘a battle of blacks against the whites’ (on 1857 revolt)   J.W. Kaye
The war which began for religion ended up as a war for independence   Surendranath Sen
‘India has lost her most eminent son’ (on death of Keshav Chandr Sen)   Max Mueller
‘If somebody wants to understand India he should study Vivekananda’   Rabindranath Tagore
So long as millions live in hunger & ignorance I hold every man a traitor   Swami Vivekananda
The objective of founding the congress was to save British ruler from danger   Lala Lajpat Rai
It is my firm belief that the congress….I should help it in its peaceful demise   Lord Curzon
I am very happy that the congress is continuously going downhill   Lord Elgin
Out life & religion are useless without the attainment of Swaraj   Lokmanya Tilak
The long night is going to end now…..most powerful goddess has arisen   Vivekananda
When in hundred years lip agitataion & paper agitation failed, in these six   Lala Lajpat Rai
months right work has succeeded (on Bengal Partition Movement)    
A charter of slavery (on govt of India act 1935)   Jawahar Nehru
Thoroughly rotten, fundamentally bad & totally unacceptable (Act 1935)   Mohammad Jinnah
The choice today is accepting the statement of June 3 or commiting suicide (on   Govind Vallabh Pant
Mountbatten plan of India’s partition)    
We would not have had one Pakistan but several (On partition plan acceptance)   Sardar Vallabh Patel

WET LAND ECOSYSTEM

by

 

Areas of marsh, fen, peatland/water, whether natural (or) artificial, permanent (or) temporary with water that is static (or) flowing, fresh, brackish (or) salt, including areas of marine

water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed 6 mtrs.

Wetlands Classification-

  1. Inland wetland-

a)Natural- Lakes / Ponds, Ox-bow Lakes, Waterlogged, Swamp/marsh

  1. b) Manmade- Reservoirs Tank, Ash pond
  2. Costal Wetland-
  3. A) Natural- Coral reef, Tidal flat, Mangroves, Salt marsh, Estuary, Lagoon, Creek,

Backwater, Bay

b)-manmade -• Salt pans, Aquculture

Functions of Wetlands-

  • Habitat to aquatic flora and fauna, birds
  • Filtration of sediments and nutrients from surface water,
  • Nutrients recycling, Water purification Floods mitigation,
  • Ground water recharging, Buffer shorelines against erosion,
  • Genetic reservoir for various species of plants(rice)
  • the National Lake Conservation Programme (NLCP) considers lakes as standing water
  • bodies which have a minimum water depth of 3 m, generally cover a water spread of more than ten hectares, and have no or very little aquatic vegetation.
  • Wetlands (generally less than 3 m deep over most of their area) are usually rich in nutrients (derived from surroundings and their sediments) and have .abundant growth of aquatic macrophytes

India’s Wetland

Wetlands occupy 18.4% of the country’s area of which 70% are under paddy cultivation.

Inland wetlands >Costal Wetlands

 

National Wetlands Conservation Programme (NWCP)

  • NWCP was implemented in the year 1985-86.
  • Under the programme, 115 wetlands have been identified by the Ministry which require urgent conservation and management interventions.

Aim

  • Conservation of wetlands to prevent their further degradation and ensuring their wise
  • use for the benefit of local communities and overall conservation of biodiversity.

Objectives

  • to lay down policy guidelines for conservation and management of wetlands in the country.
  • to provide financial assistance for undertaking intensive conservation measures in the identified wetlands
  • The Central Government is responsible for overall coordination of wetland
  • conservation programmes and initiatives at the international and national levels. It also provides guidelines, financial & technical assistance to state govt.
  • State Governments/UT Administration are responsible for management of wetlands and implementation of the NWCP for ensuring their wise-use

 

Criteria for Identification of Wetlands of National Importance

Criteria for identification of wetlands of national importance under NWCP are same as those prescribed under the ‘Ramsar Convention on Wetlands’ and are as given below:

  1. Sites containing representative, rare or unique wetland types

example of a natural or near-natural wetland type’ found within the appropriate biogeographic region.

  1. Criteria based on species and ecological communities
  • If it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species; or
  • threatened ecological communities.
  • If it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
  • If it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.

 

  1. Specific criteria based on water birds
  • If it regularly supports 20,000 or more water birds.
  • If it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbirds.

 

  1. Specific criteria based on fish
  • If it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages,  species  interactions  and/or  populations  that  are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
  • If it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.
  1. Specific criteria based on water/life and culture
  • If it is an important source of food and water resource, increased possibilities for recreation  and eco-tourism, improved scenic values, educational opportunities, conservation of cultural heritage (historic or religious sites)

 

PIPES & CISTERN

by

 

Pipes and Cistern

 

  1. Inlet:

A pipe connected with a tank or a cistern or a reservoir, that fills it, is known as an inlet.

 

Outlet:

A pipe connected with a tank or cistern or reservoir, emptying it, is known as an outlet.

 

  1. If a pipe can fill a tank in xhours, then:
part filled in 1 hour = 1 .
x
  1. If a pipe can empty a tank in yhours, then:
part emptied in 1 hour = 1 .
y
  1. If a pipe can fill a tank in xhours and another pipe can empty the full tank in y hours (where y > x), then on opening both the pipes, then
the net part filled in 1 hour = 1 – 1 .
x y
  1. If a pipe can fill a tank in xhours and another pipe can empty the full tank in y hours (where x > y), then on opening both the pipes, then
the net part emptied in 1 hour = 1 – 1 .
y x

 

 

Questions:

 

Level-I:

 

1. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes, and 10 minutes respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P,Q and R respectively. What is the proportion of the solution R in the liquid in the tank after 3 minutes?
A.
5
11
B.
6
11
C.
7
11
D.
8
11

 

2. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. If all the three pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in:
A.
1 13 hours
17
B.
2 8 hours
11
C.
3 9 hours
17
D.
4 1 hours
2

 

3. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 2 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in:
A.
4 1 hours
3
B. 7 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 14 hours
 

4.

 Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:
A. 5 min.
B. 9 min.
C. 10 min.
D. 15 min.

 

5. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is:
A. 6 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 15 hours
D. 30 hours
 

 

6.

  

 

Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is:
A. 60 gallons
B. 100 gallons
C. 120 gallons
D. 180 gallons

 

7. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
A. 20 hours
B. 25 hours
C. 35 hours
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

 

8. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours

 

9. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used together, then how long will it take to fill the tank?
A. 12 min
B. 15 min
C. 25 min
D. 50 min

 

10. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?
A. 10 min. 20 sec.
B. 11 min. 45 sec.
C. 12 min. 30 sec.
D. 14 min. 40 sec.
 

 

 

 

11.

  

 

Level-II:

 

One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A. 81 min.
B. 108 min.
C. 144 min.
D. 192 min.

 

12. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
A. 15 min
B. 20 min
C. 27.5 min
D. 30 min

 

13. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
A. 3 hrs 15 min
B. 3 hrs 45 min
C. 4 hrs
D. 4 hrs 15 min

 

14. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in:
A. 6 hours
B.
6 2 hours
3
C. 7 hours
D.
7 1 hours
2

 

15. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
 

 

 

16.

  

 

How much time will the leak take to empty the full cistern?
I. The cistern is normally filled in 9 hours.
 II. It takes one hour more than the usual time to fill the cistern because of la leak in the bottom.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

 

17.
How long will it take to empty the tank if both the inlet pipe A and the outlet pipe B are opened simultaneously?
I. A can fill the tank in 16 minutes.
 II. B can empty the full tank in 8 minutes.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

 

18.
If both the pipes are opened, how many hours will be taken to fill the tank?
I. The capacity of the tank is 400 litres.
II. The pipe A fills the tank in 4 hours.
 III. The pipe B fills the tank in 6 hours.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. All I, II and III
D. Any two of the three
E. Even with all the three statements, answer cannot be given.

 

 

Answers:

 

Level-I:

 

Answer:1 Option B

 

Explanation:

Part filled by (A + B + C) in 3 minutes = 3 1 + 1 + 1 = 3 x 11 = 11 .
30 20 10 60 20

 

Part filled by C in 3 minutes = 3 .
10

 

 Required ratio = 3 x 20 = 6 .
10 11 11

 

Answer:2 Option C

 

Explanation:

Net part filled in 1 hour 1 + 1 – 1 = 17 .
5 6 12 60

 

 The tank will be full in 60 hours i.e., 3 9 hours.
17 17

 

 

Answer:3 Option D

 

Explanation:

Work done by the leak in 1 hour = 1 – 3 = 1 .
2 7 14

Leak will empty the tank in 14 hrs.

 

 

Answer:4 Option B

 

Explanation:

Let B be turned off after x minutes. Then,

Part filled by (A + B) in x min. + Part filled by A in (30 –x) min. = 1.

 x 2 + 1 + (30 – x). 2 = 1
75 45 75

 

11x + (60 -2x) = 1
225 75

11x + 180 – 6x = 225.

x = 9.

 

 

Answer:5 Option C

 

Explanation:

Suppose, first pipe alone takes x hours to fill the tank .

Then, second and third pipes will take (x -5) and (x – 9) hours respectively to fill the tank.

1 + 1 = 1
x (x – 5) (x – 9)

 

x – 5 + x = 1
x(x – 5) (x – 9)

(2x – 5)(x – 9) = x(x – 5)

x2 – 18x + 45 = 0

(x – 15)(x – 3) = 0

x = 15.    [neglecting x = 3]

 

 

Answer:6 Option C

 

Explanation:

Work done by the waste pipe in 1 minute = 1 – 1 + 1
15 20 24

 

    = 1 – 11
15 120

 

    = – 1 .    [-ve sign means emptying]
40

 

 Volume of 1 part = 3 gallons.
40

Volume of whole = (3 x 40) gallons = 120 gallon

 

 

Answer:7 Option C

 

Explanation:

Suppose pipe A alone takes x hours to fill the tank.

Then, pipes B and C will take x and x hours respectively to fill the tank.
2 4

 

1 + 2 + 4 = 1
x x x 5

 

7 = 1
x 5

x = 35 hrs.

 

Answer:8 Option C

 

Explanation:

Let the cistern be filled by pipe A alone in x hours.

Then, pipe B will fill it in (x + 6) hours.

1 + 1 = 1
x (x + 6) 4

 

x + 6 + x = 1
x(x + 6) 4

x2 – 2x – 24 = 0

(x -6)(x + 4) = 0

x = 6.     [neglecting the negative value of x]

 

 

Answer:9 Option A

 

Explanation:

Part filled by A in 1 min = 1 .
20

 

Part filled by B in 1 min = 1 .
30

 

Part filled by (A + B) in 1 min = 1 + 1 = 1 .
20 30 12

Both pipes can fill the tank in 12 minutes.

 

 

Answer:10 Option D

 

Explanation:

Part filled in 4 minutes = 4 1 + 1 = 7 .
15 20 15

 

Remaining part = 1 – 7 = 8 .
15 15

 

Part filled by B in 1 minute = 1
20

 

1 : 8 :: 1 : x
20 15

 

x = 8 x 1 x 20 = 10 2 min = 10 min. 40 sec.
15 3

The tank will be full in (4 min. + 10 min. + 40 sec.) = 14 min. 40 sec.

 

Level-II:

 

Answer:11 Option C

 

Explanation:

Let the slower pipe alone fill the tank in x minutes.

Then, faster pipe will fill it in x minutes.
3

 

1 + 3 = 1
x x 36

 

4 = 1
x 36

x = 144 min.

 

 

 

Answer:12 Option D

 

Explanation:

Part filled by (A + B) in 1 minute = 1 + 1 = 1 .
60 40 24

Suppose the tank is filled in x minutes.

Then, x 1 + 1 = 1
2 24 40

 

x x 1 = 1
2 15

x = 30 min.

 

Answer:13 Option B

 

Explanation:

Time taken by one tap to fill half of the tank = 3 hrs.

Part filled by the four taps in 1 hour = 4 x 1 = 2 .
6 3

 

Remaining part = 1 – 1 = 1 .
2 2

 

2 : 1 :: 1 : x
3 2

 

 x = 1 x 1 x 3 = 3 hours i.e., 45 mins.
2 2 4

So, total time taken = 3 hrs. 45 mins.

 

Answer:14 Option C

 

Explanation:

(A + B)’s 1 hour’s work = 1 + 1 = 9 = 3 .
12 15 60 20

 

(A + C)’s hour’s work = 1 + 1 = 8 = 2 .
12 20 60 15

 

Part filled in 2 hrs = 3 + 2 = 17 .
20 15 60

 

Part filled in 6 hrs = 3 x 17 = 17 .
60 20

 

Remaining part = 1 – 17 = 3 .
20 20

 

Now, it is the turn of A and B and 3 part is filled by A and B in 1 hour.
20

Total time taken to fill the tank = (6 + 1) hrs = 7 hrs.

 

Answer:15 Option C

 

Explanation:

Part filled in 2 hours = 2 = 1
6 3

 

Remaining part = 1 – 1 = 2 .
3 3

 

 (A + B)’s 7 hour’s work = 2
3

 

(A + B)’s 1 hour’s work = 2
21

C’s 1 hour’s work = { (A + B + C)’s 1 hour’s work } – { (A + B)’s 1 hour’s work }

   = 1 – 2 = 1
6 21 14

C alone can fill the tank in 14 hours.

 

Answer:16 Option E

 

Explanation:

  1. Time taken to fill the cistern without leak = 9 hours.
Part of cistern filled without leak in 1 hour = 1
9
  1. Time taken to fill the cistern in presence of leak = 10 hours.
Net filling in 1 hour = 1
10

 

Work done by leak in 1 hour = 1 – 1 = 1
9 10 90

Leak will empty the full cistern in 90 hours.

Clearly, both I and II are necessary to answer the question.

Correct answer is (E).

 

 

 

 

Answer:17 Option E

 

Explanation:

 I. A’s 1 minute’s filling work = 1
16

 

II. B’s 1 minute’s filling work = 1
8

 

(A + B)’s 1 minute’s emptying work = 1 – 1 = 1
8 16 16

Tank will be emptied in 16 minutes.

Thus, both I and II are necessary to answer the question.

Correct answer is (E).

 

Answer:18 Option B

 

Explanation:

  II. Part of the tank filled by A in 1 hour = 1
4

 

III. Part of the tank filled by B in 1 hour = 1
6

 

(A + B)’s 1 hour’s work = 1 + 1 = 5
4 6 12

 

 A and B will fill the tank in 12 hrs = 2 hrs 24 min.
5

So, II and III are needed.

Correct answer is (B).

Minerals and Energy Resources : Distribution and utility of [a] metallic minerals (ion ore, copper, bauxite, manganese)

by

 

Mineral is a naturally occurring, homogeneous inorganic solid substance having a definite chemical composition and characteristic crystalline structure, color, and hardness

Minerals are valuable natural resources that are finite and non-renewable. The history of mineral extraction in India dates back to the days of the Harappan civilization. The wide availability of minerals in the form of abundant rich reserves and the ecogeological conditions make it very conducive for the growth and development of the mining sector in India.  India  is particularly rich in the metallic minerals of the ferrous group such as iron ores, manganese, chromite and titanium. It has the world’s largest reserves in mica and bauxite.

Minerals are a valuable natural resource being the vital raw material for infrastructure, capital goods and basic industries. As a major resource for development the extraction and management of minerals has to be integrated into the overall strategy of the country’s economic development. The exploitation of minerals has to be guided by longterm national goals and perspectives. Just as these goals and perspectives are dynamic and responsive to the changing global economic scenario so also the national mineral policy has to be dynamic taking into consideration the changing needs of industry in the context of the domestic and global economic environment.

Minerals are broadly divided into two groups metallic and non metallic minerals. Metallic minerals are further subdivided into ferrous and non ferrous minerals.

Metallic minerals are minerals which contain one or more metallic elements.Metallic minerals occur in rare, naturally formed concentrations known as mineral deposits. These deposits can consist of a variety of metallic minerals containing valuable metals such as nickel (pentlandite), copper (chalcopyrite), zinc (sphalerite), lead (galena) and gold (occurs as a native element or as a minor constituent within other minerals) that are used in all aspects of our daily lives.Metallic minerals must be broken apart and chemically processed to extract the useful metal from the mineral.

Ferrous minerals account for about three-fourth of the total value of the production of metallic minerals. They constitute the most important mineral group after fuel minerals. They include iron, manganese, chromite, pyrite etc. These minerals provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries, particularly iron, steel and alloys.

Iron ore

 

The two main types of ore found in our country are haematite and magnetite. It has great demand in international market due to its superior quality. The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal fields in the north-eastern plateau region of the country which adds to their advantage. Major iron ore deposits in India, distributed in five zones designated as Zone – I to Zone-V, have been identified in the country on commercial ground.

Most of iron ore found in the country is of three types:- Haematite, magnetite and limonite.
Haematite ore contains up to 68 percent of iron. It is red in color and is often refered to as ‘red ore*. Next to haematite in quanitity and richness is the magnetite ore. It contains up to 60 percent of the iron. It is dark brown to blackish in colour, and is often referred as ‘black ores’, Limonite is the third type of ore which has iron content of 35-50 percent.

  • Zone-I group of iron ore deposits occur on the Bonai Iron Ore Ranges of Jharkhand and Orissa States and in the adjoining areas in Eastern India,
  • Zone-II group comprises iron ore in Karnataka , Maharashtra , Orissa , Manipur Tamil Nadu , Geology and Mineral Resources of India ore deposits in the 225-km.-long north-south-trending linear belt in central India comprising the States of Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra (East).
  • Zone – III deposits occur in Bellary-Hospet regions of Karnataka while the
  • Zone – IV deposits cover the rich magnetitic deposits of Bababudan-Kudremukh area of the same State in south India.
  • Zone – V deposits cover iron ore deposits of Goa. In addition, in south India, magnetite-rich banded magnetite quartzites occur in parts of Andhra Pradesh near the East Coast while in Tamil Nadu good deposits of magnetite occur in Salem district and in neighbouring areas.

Copper

 

Copper is malleable, ductile and a good conductor, copper and thus is  mainly used in electrical cables, electronics and chemical industries.

The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, Khetri mines in Rajasthan and Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper.Largest resources of copper ore to a tune of 809 million tonnes (53.54%) are in the state of Rajasthan followed by Madhya Pradesh with 287.67 million tonnes (19%) and Jharkhand with 295.96 million tonnes (19.59%). Copper resources in Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Odisha, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand and West Bengal accounted for remaining 7.87% of the total all India resources.

 

Bauxite

 

Bauxite is a non-ferrous metallic mineral. It is the ore from which aluminium metal is produced. Aluminium extracted from the ore is used in making aeroplanes, electrical appliances and goods, household fittings, utensils etc. Bauxite is also used for manufacturing of white colour cement and certain chemicals. India’s reserves of bauxite of all grades have been estimated at 3037 million tonnes.

The deposits in AP and Orissa (Eastern Ghats) with a total reserve of about 1650 Mt constitute one of the largest bauxite deposits in the world. Orissa continues to be the leading state accounting for 59% of the total production of the country. is also rich in deposits. It occurs in the high hilltops of the Chhotanagpur plateau as residual deposits. Bauxite occurs as segregated sheets, pockets, patches and lenses within laterite cappings over the traps and gneisses. Extensive deposits of bauxite are found in the western Chhotanagpur plateau area falling in and districts and adjoining district.

Manganese

 

Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing ferro alloys. Karnataka has the largest recoverable reserves (64.55 million tones) of manganese ore in the country. Managanese ore minerals occur in close association with haematite and carbonates as stratiform, lenticular, patchy or pockety deposits of varying dimensions, within various greenstone belts. Andhra Pradesh contributes about 90% of the manganese ore production in the country. The manganese ore here is mainly associated with kodurites of the Khondalite Group in Eastern Ghats and Penganga beds in the Pakhal Basin. Orissa accounts for one third of the country’s annual production of manganese and possesses the second largest recoverable manganese reserve in the country i.e. 50.36 million tonnes of all grades, next to that of Karnataka. Manganese ores are mined in Singhbhum district in between Noamundi and Gua and from south of Chaibasa.

WEALTH MAXIMIZATION

by

 

 

 

Concept:

 

 

Wealth maximization is the concept of increasing the value of a business in order to increase the value of the shares held by stockholders. The concept requires a company’s management team to continually search for the highest possible returns on funds invested in the business, while mitigating any associated risk of loss.

 

Wealth maximization simply means maximization of shareholder’s wealth. It is a combination of two words viz. wealth and maximization. A wealth of a shareholder maximizes when the net worth of a company maximizes.

 

Objectives:

 

 

  1. Measurement of Wealth
  2. Market Value of Shares
  3. Common Goal
  4.  D’s Of Financial Decisions
  5. Shareholder’s Expectations

 

 

  1. Measurement of Wealth

 

The main Principle of financial management is the Maximization of Shareholders Wealth. Shareholder’s Wealth is measured on the basis of economic value. Economic value is based on cash flows and not profit. Economic Value is defined as: “The present value of future cash flows generated by a decision, discounted at appropriate rate of discount which reflects the degree of associated risk“.

 

  1. Market Value of Shares

 

The future cash flow is estimated for the present value. The present value is the Market price of share. As Shareholder’s wealth is equal to the market price of shares held by him, any increase in Market price of shares would result in an increase in Shareholder’s Wealth.

 

  1. Common Goal

The Maximization of Shareholder’s Wealth is the common goal between the Shareholders and the Management. The recognition of this goal motivates the Management to allocate the available resources in an optimum way.

 

 

 

 

 

  1. 3 D’s Of Financial Decisions

The Maximization of Shareholder’s wealth indicates that the Market price of share is related to three basic financial decisions:

The investment decisions,

The financing decision,

The dividend decision.

 

  1. Shareholder’s Expectations

 

Shareholder’s expectations are about future cash flows based on current cash flows and projected future growth. The market price of share shows these expectations.

FRACTIONS

by

Fractions
Any unit can be divided into any numbers of equal parts, one or more of this parts is called fraction of that unit. e.g. one-forth (1/4), one-third (1/3), three-seventh (3/7) etc.

The lower part indicates the number of equal parts into which the unit is divided, is called denominator. The upper part, which indicates the number of parts taken from the fraction is called the numerator. The numerator and the denominator of a fraction are called its terms.

  • A fraction is unity, when its numerator and denominator are equal.
  • A fraction is equal to zero if its numerator is zero.
  • The denominator of a fraction can never be zero.
  • The value of a fraction is not altered by multiplying or dividing the numerator and the denominator by the same number.e.g. 2/3 = 2/6 = 8/12 = (2/4)/(3/4)
  • When there is no common factor between numerator and denominator it is called in its lowest terms.e.g. 15/25 = 3/5
  • When a fraction is reduced to its lowest term, its numerator and denominator are prime to each other.
  • When the numerator and denominator are divided by its HCF, fraction reduces to its lowest term.


Proper fraction: A fraction in which numerator is less than the denominator. e.g. 1/4, 3/4, 11/12 etc.

 

Improper Fraction:  A fraction in which numerator is equal to or more than the denominator. e.g. 5/4, 7/4, 13/12 etc.

 

Like fraction: Fractions in which denominators are same is called like fractions.

e.g. 1/12, 5/12, 7/12, 13/12 etc.

 

Unlike fraction: Fractions in which denominators are not same is called, unlike fractions.

e.g. 1/12, 5/7, 7/9 13/11 etc.

 

Compound Fraction: Fraction of a fraction is called a compound fraction.

e.g. 1/2 of 3/4 is a compound fraction.

 

Complex Fractions: Fractions in which numerator or denominator or both are fractions, are called complex fractions.

 

Continued fraction: Fraction that contain additional fraction is called continued fraction.

e.g.

 

 

 

Rule: To simplify a continued fraction, begin from the bottom and move upwards.

 

Decimal Fractions: Fractions in which denominators are 10 or multiples of 10 is called, decimal fractions. e.g. 1/10, 3/100, 2221/10000 etc.

 

Recurring Decimal: If in a decimal fraction a digit or a set of digits is repeated continuously, then such a number is called a recurring decimal. It is expressed by putting a dot or bar over the digits. e.g.

 

 

Pure recurring decimal: A decimal fraction in which all the figures after the decimal point is repeated is called a pure recurring decimal.

 

Mixed recurring decimal: A decimal fraction in which only some of the figures after the decimal point is repeated is called a mixed recurring decimal.

 

Conversion of recurring decimal into proper fraction: 

CASE I: Pure recurring decimal

 

Write the repeated digit only once in the numerator and put as many nines as in the denominator as the number of repeating figures. e.g.

 

CASE II: Mixed recurring decimal

In the numerator, take the difference between the number formed by all the digits after the decimal point and that formed by the digits which are not repeated. In the denominator, take the number formed as many nines as there are repeating digits followed by as many zeros as is the number of non-repeating digits. e.g.

 
Questions

Level-I

 

1.
Evaluate : (2.39)2 – (1.61)2
2.39 – 1.61
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

 

2. What decimal of an hour is a second ?
A. .0025
B. .0256
C. .00027
D. .000126

 

 

3.
The value of (0.96)3 – (0.1)3 is:
(0.96)2 + 0.096 + (0.1)2
A. 0.86
B. 0.95
C. 0.97
D. 1.06

 

 

4.
The value of 0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1 + 0.02 x 0.02 x 0.02 is:
0.2 x 0.2 x 0.2 + 0.04 x 0.04 x 0.04
A. 0.0125
B. 0.125
C. 0.25
D. 0.5

 

5. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ?
A. 0.172
B. 1.72
C. 17.2
D. 172
 

 

 

6.

  

 

 

When 0.232323….. is converted into a fraction, then the result is:
A.
1
5
B.
2
9
C.
23
99
D.
23
100

 

7.
.009 = .01
?
A. .0009
B. .09
C. .9
D. 9

 

8. The expression (11.98 x 11.98 + 11.98 x x + 0.02 x 0.02) will be a perfect square for x equal to:
A. 0.02
B. 0.2
C. 0.04
D. 0.4

 

9.
(0.1667)(0.8333)(0.3333) is approximately equal to:
(0.2222)(0.6667)(0.1250)
A. 2
B. 2.40
C. 2.43
D. 2.50
   

 

10. 3889 + 12.952 – ? = 3854.002
A. 47.095
B. 47.752
C. 47.932
D. 47.95
 

 

 

 

 

 

11.

  

 

 

Level-II

 

 

0.04 x 0.0162 is equal to:
A. 6.48 x 10-3
B. 6.48 x 10-4
C. 6.48 x 10-5
D. 6.48 x 10-6

 

12.
4.2 x 4.2 – 1.9 x 1.9 is equal to:
2.3 x 6.1
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 20
D. 22

 

 

13.
If 144 = 14.4 , then the value of x is:
0.144 x
A. 0.0144
B. 1.44
C. 14.4
D. 144

 

 

 

14. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of commodity Y increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40 paise more than the commodity Y ?
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2012
D. 2013

 

 

15.

  

Which of the following are in descending order of their value ?
A.
1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6
3 5 7 5 6 7
B.
1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6
3 5 5 7 6 7
C.
1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6
3 5 5 6 7 7
D.
6 , 5 , 4 , 3 , 2 , 1
7 6 5 7 5 3
 

 

16.

  

Which of the following fractions is greater than 3 and less than 5 ?
4 6
A.
1
2
B.
2
3
C.
4
5
D.
9
10

 

17. The rational number for recurring decimal 0.125125…. is:
A.
63
487
B.
119
993
C.
125
999
D. None of these

 

18. 617 + 6.017 + 0.617 + 6.0017 = ?
A. 6.2963
B. 62.965
C. 629.6357
D. None of these

 

 

19.
The value of 489.1375 x 0.0483 x 1.956 is closest to:
0.0873 x 92.581 x 99.749
A. 0.006
B. 0.06
C. 0.6
D. 6

 

20. 0.002 x 0.5 = ?
A. 0.0001
B. 0.001
C. 0.01
D. 0.1

 

 

 

 

 

Answers

Level-I

Answer:1 Option B

 

Explanation:

Given Expression = a2 – b2 = (a + b)(a – b) = (a + b) = (2.39 + 1.61) = 4.
a – b (a – b)

 


Answer:2 Option C

 

Explanation:

Required decimal = 1 = 1 = .00027
60 x 60 3600

 

 

Answer:3 Option A

 

Explanation:

Given expression
= (0.96)3 – (0.1)3
(0.96)2 + (0.96 x 0.1) + (0.1)2
= a3 – b3
a2 + ab + b2
= (a – b)  
= (0.96 – 0.1)  
= 0.86

Answer:4 Option B

 

Explanation:

Given expression = (0.1)3 + (0.02)3 = 1 = 0.125
23 [(0.1)3 + (0.02)3] 8

 

 

 

 

Answer:5 Option C

 

Explanation:

29.94 = 299.4
1.45 14.5

 

= 2994 x 1 [ Here, Substitute 172 in the place of 2994/14.5 ]
14.5 10

 

= 172
10

= 17.2

 

 

Answer:6 Option C

 

Explanation:

0.232323… = 0.23 = 23
99

 

Answer:7 Option C

 

Explanation:

Let .009 = .01;     Then x = .009 = .9 = .9
x .01 1

 

 

Answer:8 Option C

 

Explanation:

Given expression = (11.98)2 + (0.02)2 + 11.98 x x.

For the given expression to be a perfect square, we must have

11.98 x x = 2 x 11.98 x 0.02 or x   = 0.04

 

Answer:9 Option D

 

Explanation:

Given expression
= (0.3333) x (0.1667)(0.8333)
(0.2222) (0.6667)(0.1250)
= 3333 x
1 x 5
6 6
2222
2 x 125
3 1000
= 3 x 1 x 5 x 3 x 8
2 6 6 2
= 5
2
= 2.50

 

Answer:10 Option D

 

Explanation:

Let 3889 + 12.952 – x = 3854.002.

Then x = (3889 + 12.952) – 3854.002

= 3901.952 – 3854.002

= 47.95.

 

Level-II

Answer:11 Option B

 

Explanation:

4 x 162 = 648. Sum of decimal places = 6.
So, 0.04 x 0.0162 = 0.000648 = 6.48 x 10-4

 

Answer:12 Option B

 

Explanation:

Given Expression = (a2 – b2) = (a2 – b2) = 1.
(a + b)(a – b) (a2 – b2)

 

 

Answer:13 Option A

 

Explanation:

144 = 14.4
0.144 x

 

144 x 1000 = 14.4
144 x

 

 x = 14.4 = 0.0144
1000

 

 

Answer:14 Option B

 

Explanation:

Suppose commodity X will cost 40 paise more than Y after z years.

Then, (4.20 + 0.40z) – (6.30 + 0.15z) = 0.40

0.25z = 0.40 + 2.10

 z = 2.50 = 250 = 10.
0.25 25

X will cost 40 paise more than Y 10 years after 2001 i.e., 2011.

 

 

 

Answer:15 Option D

Answer:16 Option C

 

Explanation:

3 = 0.75, 5 = 0.833, 1 = 0.5, 2 = 0.66, 4 = 0.8, 9 = 0.9.
4 6 2 3 5 10

Clearly, 0.8 lies between 0.75 and 0.833.

4 lies between 3 and 5 .
5 4 6

 

 

 

Answer:17 Option C

 

Explanation:

0.125125… = 0.125 = 125
999

 

 

Answer:18 Option C

 

Explanation:

617.00

6.017

0.617

+  6.0017

——–

629.6357

———

 

Answer:19 Option B

 

Explanation:

489.1375 x 0.0483 x 1.956 489 x 0.05 x 2
0.0873 x 92.581 x 99.749 0.09 x 93 x 100

 

= 489
9 x 93 x 10

 

= 163 x 1
279 10

 

= 0.58
10

= 0.058  0.06.

 

Answer:20 Option B

 

Explanation:

2 x 5 = 10.

Sum of decimal places = 4

0.002 x 0.5 = 0.001